Problem25- Maybe Fermat primes are infinte?
Show that .
Solution. For every positive integer we have by definition
.
It means that for we have
.
Note now that if a prime then
; but since
then there exists a positive integer
such that
.
Also this trivial inequality holds: : so
.
Summing up,
.
Extendig this product, we have
.
For every integer it’s also true that
.
Then we can say that there exists a positive constant such that
.
Turning back to our problem, we proved that
.
Now since for every the following inequality
holds definitively, then we finished, indeed:
. []
Advertisement